Kindly clarify whether in the above scenario, all 3 talaqs has happened or not...
Question
1. In 2005 X - the husband, writes on a piece of paper that ' I divorce' and then crosses it. Does this count as one talaaq.
2. In Sep, 2006, X - says ' I divorce you' in front of his uncle and brother in law and then do the rujoo.
3. In December, 2007, X clearly says these words - ' Divorce', I divorce you and there is a witness to that.
X and his family now says that there are only 2 talaqs and not 3.
Y based on #2 and #3 asked a scholar and got a fatwa that 3 talaqs have occured. Y then completed her iddat.
Kindly clarify whether in the above scenario, all 3 talaqs has happened or not.
Jazakullah Khairun.
Answer
In the name of Allah, Most Gracious, Most Merciful
Assalaamu `alaykum waRahmatullahi Wabarakatoh
In points 2 and 3, the word divorce has been uttered three times. Why does X fell as the husband feel that onlt two divorces have taken place? Once we receive X’s response, we will issue a ruling.
And Allah knows best
Wassalam
Mufti Ebrahim Desai
Darul Iftaa
- Answered by
- Mufti Ebrahim Desai
Where scholars differ, it’s safer to take the more cautious view.
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Source: Darul Iftaa Mahmudiyyah — https://askimam.org/public/question_detail/15417
Fatawa SA: https://fatawa.co.za/fatwa/askimam-15417
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“The law of shariah is that once the husband issues three divorces, the nikaah totally terminates and there is no way for the husband to reconcile. Both husband and wife become haraam for each other.”
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